This morning I posted the following story:
I find that the rules on the use of the term “pedophile” or “pedophelia” are rather grey in instances like this. Its pretty hard to discuss this article without using those terms. However, if one did, I understand that at no point should the term be used against another poster.
But stating that the Catholic Church seems to have a definite Pedophelia problem shouldnt be a problem. Its the crux of the article.
I’m not complaining, I’m treading on egg shells and asking for clarification.
Thanks in advance