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In the discussion linked above, there are three commenters asserting religious belief is necessarily the result of brainwashing.
This is a negative generalization of an entire non-political group.
It implies that all parents of Christians are engaging in psychological abuse of their children. Note, Ellabulldog actually acknowledges brainwashing requires psychological techniques.
Is asserting all or even a majority of Christians, or religious people as Natureboi asserts, are brainwashed acceptable? If so, how much more broad or negative must a generalization be to be considered a violation?